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NR 603 Week 2 Quiz

Chamberlain University Nursing NR 603 Advanced Clinical Diagnosis and Practice across the Lifespan Practicum Arlen Specter 10 pages
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C. “Let’s talk about what’s most important to you right now and how we can support that.” D. “I can refer you to a reproductive endocrinologist if you’re ready.” 4) A 29-year-old patient presents for follow-up care one week after experiencing a spontaneous miscarriage. She reports feeling emotionally overwhelmed, fatigued, and having little appetite. In addition to gynecologic care, which of the following assessments is the most critical to prioritize at this stage to ensure comprehensive care without complications? A. Gastrointestinal assessment to evaluate recent dietary changes B. Cardiovascular assessment to assess for circulatory abnormalities C. Mental health to evaluate emotional status D. Endocrine evaluation to rule out thyroid dysfunction 5) Why is it important to include a breast and thyroid exam during the physical assessment following a spontaneous abortion? A. To assess for milk production and hyperprolactinemia that can delay emotional recovery B. To screen for breast cancer and thyroid nodules C. To determine if thyroid dysfunction resulted in early pregnancy loss D. To evaluate risk for future spontaneous abortion 6) A 56-year-old male presents with a new-onset headache that is progressively worsening. He denies nausea or vomiting but reports recent unintentional weight loss and persistent fatigue. He smokes 3 cigarettes a day and drinks no alcohol. On exam there is mild papilledema. Which combination of features raises the GREATEST concern for a secondary headache disorder requiring further evaluation? A. Headache in a male patient over 50 B. Smoking and normal fundoscopic exam C. Sudden onset headache described with nausea and vomiting 10) A 36-year-old female presents with fever, myalgia, and confusion. She recently returned from a camping trip in the Midwest and reports multiple tick bites. Physical exam reveals petechial rash on the wrists and ankles. Labs show thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes. Which is the most appropriate next step? A. Start doxycycline empirically B. Refer for lumbar puncture to rule out meningitis C. Initiate corticosteroids for possible autoimmune encephalitis D. Order serologic testing and wait for results before starting treatment 11) A 68-year-old male presents with a worsening headache that has changed in intensity and character over the past week. He reports increased difficulty concentrating, occasional blurred vision, and a few instances of imbalance. What is the MOST appropriate next step in evaluation? A. Recommend rest, hydration, and follow-up in 48–72 hours B. Order urgent neuroimaging to evaluate for intracranial pathology C. Assess for depression and start antidepressant therapy D. Initiate migraine treatment and refer to outpatient neurology 12) A 35-year-old patient presents with mild tingling in the right lower extremity but has normal strength, coordination, reflexes, and gait. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management? A. Refer to an orthopedic surgeon within 1 week B. Follow up with the primary care provider in 6 months C. Begin opioid therapy and refer to pain management D. Refer to physical therapy within 1–2 weeks 16) Which pelvic exam finding at a follow-up visit would prompt urgent evaluation for retained products of conception? A.

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